We are a Non-Profit organization, using SMS for Informational purposes (employee to customer two-way communications through RingCentral's SMS app). I wanted to confirm that each employee initiated communication must include "STOP" verbiage?
Also, via this link (https://www.ringcentral.com/legal/sms-mms-content-policies.html), it indicates we must log and track consent. I've seen multiple posts as well as statements in the 3/8 TCR Video Q&A that indicate we do not have to log/track consent if we fall into Information use. Can you explain why the difference and how do we distinguish which we should use? Published/Documented evidence would be appreciated.
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@DAVID CONROY , You can create a non profit brand and chose a low volume conversational campaign time for this use case.
For opt in consent, yes it's needed even for 1-1 conversations, but it's not as strict as a marketing messaging consent. So for your case, as mentioned in above article, it may fit in"
Initiating the text message exchange in which the Message Sender replies to the Consumer only with responsive information." You can provide details on who initiates the message and if it's your customer, that it's kind of implicit consent. If your office starts a SMS normally, then yes you need to document the consent of the recipient.
Regards
Gurpreet Singh
GPM, RingCentral Inc.
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